Times have changed since Keynes
Let’s assume for a moment that Keynes was correct in the 1930s that increases in aggregate demand by government do indeed increase GDP. This is actually not something most economists, including many from the Chicago and Austrian schools of thought challenge. It’s hard to deny that once a variable in the GDP equation is increase it would in turn increase GDP. Obviously GDP is measured as private consumption + gross investment + government spending + (exports – imports;) So of course if you increase the variable that is government spending then GDP increases. That’s not what I’m saying “let’s assume;” Let’s assume that government spending increases general welfare with employment (though I feel the assumption is factually incorrect) and can fill in the hole of slacking private investment. The premise of this relies on an increase in aggregate demand by government, which makes up for the lack of private investment; this does not require that the multiplier be more than 1 (meaning you’d spend more money than you’d receive back in general welfare.)
Assuming that, let’s also run with facts that we have; currently U.S. employment from manufacturing is ~7% vs ~30% during the Great Depression. Let’s also note that many economies in the Far East rest their economic strength solely on exports and thus artificially devalue their currencies, and give their domestic companies export subsidies to lower the cost of goods to the U.S. and other trading partners. Likewise, let’s concede that current U.S. trade balance for June 2010 was $-49.9 Billion, where exports decreased from $150 Billion from $152 Billion (May 2010); while Imports increased to $200.3 in June from 194.4 Billion in May. For goods, the deficit was $62.0 billion in June, up from $54.3 billion in May. For services, the surplus was $12.1 billion in June, down from $12.4 billion in May. Notice anything strange about these numbers? Though the services sector was in decline, the deficit for goods on the U.S. balance of trade increased. Similar diversions have occurred in spite of the economic stimulus package. How is that possible?
I hypothesize (though I can’t show any hard numbers) that the stimulus which relied on increases in aggregate demand for “goods” rather than “services” leaked out of the U.S. economy at a rate much higher than what was seen during The Great Depression, and we can see this in our trade deficit. If we review the equation for the GDP equation we note that the number also includes (exports-imports) which in a quarter at the rate of -49.9 Billion a month ends up around ~$250 Billion. At the rate of $8 Billion in deficit increases per month in a given quarter that is ~$32 Billion, or roughly 8%. Given this hypothesis, the multiplier would be impacted negatively, by ~1% (assuming it was a multiplier of 1). That’s not a big number, but if you consider that the average multiplier from government spending is from .50 to .80, it is actually a more substantial percentage of the multiplier itself; and more around 9%; So ~9% of the actual multiplier was diminished, as a result of it leaking from foreign outflows. This is all, non-technical, and a roundabout method mostly doing small calculations, but the multiplier could theoretically fall from .50 to .45. You have to consider that the stimulus package contained $200 Billion in tax cuts which according to Keynesians would be horded by consumers instead of spent, then you have an even bleaker picture of government spending’s impact on aggregate demand and domestic GDP.
So what caused the economy’s rebound if not government spending? I think Friedman’s pluck theory answers that question. Generally recoveries are proportional to their declines, the Federal Reserve inserted trillions into the financial sector through loans, and businesses had to replenish their inventories…I hardly see any room in the [brief?] recovery to point at government spending as a large player.
Basically what I’m saying is that the U.S. economy has so evolved away from manufacturing of goods, that it’s hard to justify trying to increase aggregate demand with government spending. Keynes could have been right (though I say he wasn’t) that spending could increase welfare, but I don’t think that the modern economy in the U.S. supports this notion, and I think the numbers agree with me. This is obviously what Krugman would call “wonkish,” but I believe that the numbers are highly suspect…and it’s interesting that the trade deficit numbers increased even though the heights of the U.S. dollar index….all of this to me screams, “this isn’t working.” Arnold Kling wrote a similar argument in November of 2009, and I even stole one of his graphs.









